CSS Past Papers Of 2011 European History Paper 1 & 2

EUROPEAN HISTORY, PAPER – I

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet.

(i) The Industrial Revolution was:
a. A broad political movement that swept away the old regime in France.
b. A social revolution that destabilized the Eastern European states.
c. An economic transformation of the agricultural sector in the United Kingdom.
d. A socio-economic process that gradually created technology and capital intensive system of production.
e. None of these.

(ii) The categorization of Left, Center and Right, emerged from which major political change.
a. The French Revolution of 1789
b. The Reform Act of 1832
c. The Revolution of 1848
d. The Unification of Germany
e. None of these

(iii) The French Monarch, Louis XVI, failed to mobilize the army and crush the rebellion because:
a. He got conflicting advice from his financial managers and was worried about the economic impact of a crackdown.
b. He wanted a political solution to the conflict.
c. He was a pious Catholic who did not want to shed the blood of his co-religionists.
d. He was indecisive and doubted the reliability of the army.
e. None of these.

(iv) The Congress System that emerged from the Vienna settlement was:
a. An early exercise in global government.
b. A diplomatic exercise designed to maintain the domestic and territorial and stability of the Habsburg dynastic state
c. A failed attempt to entangle France in the affairs of the Continent.
d. A successful attempt to prevent the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire.
e. None of these.

(v) The British gradually adopted a policy of splendid isolation after the Napoleonic Wars because:
a. Their government was under intense domestic pressure to abandon overseas adventurism after nearly 25 years of military conflict.
b. They were facing acute religious and sectarian difficulties.
c. They did not feel threatened by domestic instability.
d. They felt they had been deceived by the Austrians.
e. None of these


(vi) The Metternich System was:
a. A reactionary system designed to halt communism.
b. A reactionary system designed to suppress the Catholic Church.
c. A reactionary system designed to save the Hohenzollern dynasty.
d. A reactionary system designed to prevent the spread of anti-monarchical thought.
e. None of these.

(vii) The greatest milestone in the constitution development of Britain was:
a. The industrial revolution of 1825
b. The suppression of the Indian rebels in 1857-8.
c. The Reform Act of 1834.
d. The Reform Act of 1836.
e. None of these

(viii) Otto von Bismarck was ably assisted by::
a. Roon & Moltke
b. Schulenber & Roon
c. Fredrick & Moltke
d. Wilhelm & Roon
e. None of these

(ix) Mazzini, Cavour and Garibaldi were:
a. Italian leaders who wanted a Constitutional Monarchy in Italy.
b. Italian Nationalists who wanted to oust the Austrains.
c. Italian revolutionaries who wanted to crush the Catholic Church.
d. Italian romantics who wanted to establish a Communist Republic.
e. None of these.

(x) Napoleon I is known as a great reformer primarily because of:
a. The Code Nationale.
b. The Concordat.
c. The Code Penal.
d. The Education Reforms.
e. None of these.

(xi) In Europe, the unification of Germany is regarded as more important than the unification of Italy because:
a. Germany was culturally a more important country.
b. Germany’s unification altered the balance of power in Europe.
c. Germany’s leaders were far more competent.
d. Germany had already industrialized before unification while Italy was still backward.
e. None of these.

(xii) The Communist Manifesto is:
a. Responsible for the French Revolution and inspired the Jacobins.
b. An articulation of the Marxist philosophy of history.
c. An excellent example of the Romantic Movement in European thought.
d. An unimportant pamphlet that was easily suppressed and soon forgotten.
e. None of these.

(xiii) The three major European Imperial powers of the 1800s were:
a. France, Russia, and England.
b. Germany, Russia and England.
c. France, England and the Netherlands.
d. England, France, and Germany.
e. None of these.

(xiv) A stable balance of power is achieved when:
a. Maximum offensive power is equal to maximum defensive power.
b. Minimum offensive power is equal to minimum defensive power.
c. Maximum offensive power is less than minimum defensive power.
d. Minimum offensive power is less than minimum defensive power.
e. None of these.

(xv) Bismark’s policy post 1871 was:
a. Isolate Russia, ally with Austria, reconcile with France, challenge England.
b. Isolate France, ally with Austria, befriend Russia, keep England neutral.
c. Aggressive expansion overseas.
d. Spread nationalism in Europe to other oppressed nationalities.
e. None of these.

(xvi) Napoleon III was:
a. The son of Napoleon II.
b. The grandson of Napoleon I.
c. The cousin of Napoleon II.
d. The younger brother of Napoleon I.
e. None of these.

(xvii) The term “Entente Cordiale” means:
a. A friendly understanding.
b. A military alliance.
c. A defense pact.
d. A comprehensive Treaty of Friendship.
e. None of these.

(xviii) Pan-Slavism is:
a. The notion that all Russians should live under one state.
b. The idea that all Slavic Peoples are essentially one national community.
c. A version of Greek Orthodox Christianity popular in Serbia.
d. An exclusive anti-Austrian ideology.
e. None of these.

(xix) Zollverein and Weltpolitik are:
a. German political institutions.
b. German policy initiatives.
c. German imperial concepts.
d. Examples of German ambitiousness.
e. None of these.

(xx) On the eve of the First World War the leaderships of all the major powers believed that:
a. The war was inevitable and was going to be a long and bloody affair.
b. They would be quickly and completely victorious over their enemies.
c. The war was a terrible mistake and totally unnecessary.
d. They were under a legal obligation to go to war even if it did not suit their national interests.
e. None of these.

Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART – II.

Q.2. Why did Britain experience an economic revolution without seriously political upheaval in the 1800s?

Q.3. Do you think the French revolution was inevitable? Defend your opinion.

Q.4. What were the roles of the major European powers in Eastern Question? 
Did any one of them have an effective answer to the Eastern Question? Discuss.

Q.5. How did the rise of nationalism in Europe threaten the Russian and Austrian empires? Discuss.

Q.6. How did the socio-economic transformation of Europe post-1815 contribute to expansionism abroad? Are there any broader lesions to be learnt from the phenomenon of European imperialism?

Q.7. Define progress. Do you think that the nineteenth century was an age of progress? Defend your opinion with reference to the history of the period.

Q.8. Compare the foreign policy of Bismark from 1871 and 1890 to the foreign policy of the Kaiser between 1890 and 1914. Critically evaluate the similarities and differences.

EUROPEAN HISTORY, PAPER – II
(PART-I MCQs)
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet.

(i) George Kennan articulated the Containment policy in:
(a) The X article and Long Telegram.
(b) The Long Telegram.
(c) The X article.
(d) None of these.

(ii) Phil-Hellenism refers to:
(a) A pro-Turkish Policy.
(b) A pro-Greek Policy.
(c) A Neutral Policy towards Greece and Turkey.
(d) A hostile policy towards Greece and Turkey.
(e) None of these.

(iii) The Marshall Plan was:
(a) An emergency plan to aid all non-communist countries.
(b) An American plan designed to help all European countries rebuild after the First World War.
(c) An Anglo-American plan to rapidly develop Japan as a bulwark against Soviet expansionism.
(d) The official US policy towards the Middle East.
(e) None of these.

(iv) Winston Churchill was the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom from:
(a) September 1939-July 1945.
(b) May 1940-July 1945.
(c) January 1940-July 1945.
(d) August 1920-June 1924.
(e) None of these.

(v) The SS were Adolf Hitler’s:
(a) Elite body guards reporting to Hitler himself.
(b) Crack troops reporting to General Manstein.
(c) Elite party guard reporting to Himmler.
(d) Secret Police reporting to Goering.
(e) None of these.

(vi) Trotsky believed in permanent revolution while Stalin believed in:
(a) Marxist Gradualism.
(b) Leninist Revolutionist Doctrine.
(c) Socialism in One Country.
(d) The People First Approach
(e) None of these.

(vii) The decision to drop the atomic bomb on Japan was taken in order to:
(a) Test a new weapon.
(b) Intimidate the Soviet Union.
(c) Save additional US casualties.
(d) All of these.
(e) None of these.

(viii) The Sudetenland was:
(a) A part of Austria that Mussolini coveted.
(b) A part of Poland that Stalin coveted.
(c) A part of Czechoslovakia that Hitler coveted.
(d) A part of France claimed by both Germany and France.
(e) None of these.

(ix) Blitzkrieg was:
(a) The German Operation Strategy that emphasized firepower, movement, and inter-services battlefield integration.
(b) The German Operational Strategy that focused on static defense of German territory.
(c) The German Operational Strategy that relied solely on airpower to win wars.
(d) The German Operational Strategy that emphasized total resources.
(e) None of these.

(x) Lloyd George was:
(a) The British Prime Minister responsible for the appeasement of Germany.
(b) The British Prime Minister who advocated a pro-Turkish policy.
(c) The British Prime Minister who led his country to victory in the First World War.
(d) The British Prime Minister who was a lifelong enemy of Winston Churchill.
(e) None of these.

(xi) Ideologically, Mussolini was:
(a) A conservative Catholic who turned to Fascism.
(b) A radical socialist who became an ultra-nationalist.
(c) Always a fascist.
(d) A socialist at heart.
(e) None of these.

(xii) The Soviet Union’s casualties in World War II are estimated as:
(a) Between 1 and 5 million dead, 10 million wounded.
(b) Between 5 and 7 million dead, 20 million wounded.
(c) Between 20 and 25million dead, indererminate number wounded.
(d) Between 30 and 40 million dead, 50 million wounded.
(e) None of these.

(xiii) Hitler’s decision to invade the Soviet Union was delayed by which combination of actors?
(a) The need to help Mussolini in the Balkans and North Africa as well as immense logistical problems.
(b) Hitler’s desire to win a winter campaign in Russia and bread the curse of Napoleon.
(c) The incompetence of the German General Staff and their lack of resources.
(d) The British aerial bombardment of Germany and the French resistance to Nazi rule.
(e) None of these.

(xiv) Konrad Adenauer was:
(a) The last Chancellor of United Germany.
(b) Hitler’s greatest political rival.
(c) The first Chancellor of West Germany.
(d) The second Chancellor of West Germany.
(e) None of these.

(xv) The four powers responsible for Berlin after WWII were:
(a) USA, USSR, UK, Netherlands.
(b) USSR, UK, France, Netherlands.
(c) France, UK, USSR, USA
(d) USA, Italy, France, UK
(e) None of these

(xvi) The Five-Year Plans were:
(a) An initiative taken by Nazi Germany to rapidly recover after WWI.
(b) The Soviet economic development plans designed to industrialize the country.
(c) The American plan to counter the Great Depression.
(d) The Anglo-French plan to develop the global economy.
(e) None of these.

(xvii) The United Nations Security Council is:
(a) A council of Great Powers that operates on the basis of Great Power consensus.
(b) A council of Great Powers that operates on the majority principle.
(c) A council of Great Powers that operates on the consultative principle.
(d) A council of Great Powers that operates on the majority and 
consultative principles.
(e) None of these.

(xviii) The League of Nations and UN had their Headquarters in:
(a) Geneva
(b) London
(c) New York City
(d) Paris
(e) None of these.

(xix) Collective security is:
(a) The idea that all nations must support each other militarily.
(b) The concept that any act of aggression against one state is a threat to all states.
(c) The same thing as the Balance of Power but just under a new name.
(d) The philosophy of mutual interdependence.
(e) None of these.

(xx) In the view of the Soviet Union and the USA the core theater of the Cold War was:
(a) Africa because of its resources
(b) Latin America because of its location.
(c) East Asia because of its population
(d) Europe because of its industrial development
(e) None of these.

PART II

Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PARRT-II.

Q.2. Why did the Versailles settlement prove to be a “a ceasefire for twenty years”? Analyze.

Q.3. How would history have unfolded differently if Nazi Germany and its allies had emerged victorious in the Second World War? Discuss.

Q.4. Was the rapid industrialization of the USSR worth the human cost of Stalinism? Develop and defend your opinion.

Q.5. How did US and Soviet misperceptions of each other lead to the Cold 
War? Discuss.

Q.6. Does the history of the period 1914-1960 offer any basis for optimism with regard to the prospects of world peace? Discuss.

Q.7. What are the major differences between Mussolini’s Fascism and Hitler’s Nazism? Discuss.

Q.8. How did the rise of the United States of America affect the outcome of major conflicts between 1914 and 1945? Discuss.

__________________

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 British History Paper 1 & 2

British History

Paper-II

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Geography Paper 1 & 2

Geography 2011

Paper-II

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Economics Paper 1 & 2

ECONOMICS, PAPER-I

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet.

(i) Price effect is a combination of:
(a) Income effect and policy effect
(b) Income substitution, income and welfare effect
(c) Substitution effect plus market effect
(d) All of these

(ii) Which of the following is true in long run equilibrium for a firm in monopolistic competition?
(a) MC = ATC
(b) MC > ATC
(c) MC ≤ ATC
(d) None of thes

(iii) To represent the whole economy there are:
(a) Four markets
(b) Three markets
(c) Two markets
(d) None of these

(iv) The long run average cost curve is:
(a) U-shaped
(b) J-shaped
(c) Hyperbola shape
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) None of these

(v) Demand curve in monopolistic competition is:
(a) Relatively flatter than monopoly
(b) Relatively steeper than monopoly
(c) Negatively sloped and same as monopoly
(d) None of these

(vi) The relation between labour units employed and wage rate is shown by:
(a) Value of marginal product of labour [VMP1]
(b) Value of average product of labour [VAP1]
(c) Negatively sloped marginal productivity curve
(d) Both (b) and (c)

(vii) A market with few entry barriers and with many firms that sell differentiated products is:
(a) Purely competitive
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistically competitive
(d) Oligopolistic Competition

(viii) The firm’s profit will be maximum when its:
(a) Marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue
(b) Marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost
(c) Marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue
(d) Both (a) and (b)

(ix) General equilibrium represents:
(a) Equilibrium of the goods and money market
(b) Equilibrium of the goods market
(c) Equilibrium of the goods, money and labour market
(d) None of these

(x) Net exports are always:
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Balance
(d) None of these

(xi) When Slope of the Aggregate Expenditure Curve increases; (Keynesian Cross model)
(a) National Income will increase
(b) National Income will decrease
(c) There will be recessionary gap
(d) There will be inflationary gap
(e) None of these

(xii) GNP of a country is:
(a) GDP divided by prices
(b) GNP – GDP
(c) GNP – Depreciation
(d) None of these

(xiii) Money is:
(a) Currency and Coins
(b) Credit cards and drafts
(c) Bonds
(d) Promissory notes
(e) None of these

(xiv) Keep in mind Production Possibility Frontier (PPF):
(a) All the points on the PPF could be efficient points
(b) Production may be chosen inside PPF which will be efficient
(c) Production out side the PPF is efficient
(d) None of these

(xv) The investment demand curve is always:
(a) Negatively sloped
(b) Positively sloped
(c) Vertical
(d) Horizontal

(xvi) Real interest rate is:
(a) Interest rate divided by prices
(b) Interest rate divided by inflation
(c) Interest rate minus inflation
(d) Interest rate plus inflation

(xvii) The consumer will be in equilibrium where:
(a) Budget line intersect indifference curve
(b) Budget line intersect price line
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

(xviii) When there is Liquidity Trap:
(a) Money demand increases interest rate
(b) Money demand decreases interest rate
(c) Money demand curve is vertical
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

(xix) Due to change in price aggregate demand curve will:
(a) Shift to the left
(b) Shift to the right
(c) None of (a) and (b)
(d) Become flatter

(xx) Derived demand is:
(a) Like demand for shoe maker
(b) Like teacher / tutor
(c) Like craftsman
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

PART – II

Q.2. (a) Explain consumer equilibrium by utilizing Cardinal and Ordinal Approaches. (15)
(b) Which approach is better to establish consumer equilibrium and why? (05)

Q.3. (a) Explain the difference between Perfect and Pure Competition. (05)
(b) Establish equilibrium under any one markets, you have explained under (a) above. (15)

Q.4. (a) Establish and explain equilibrium of the economy in the short run and long run.
Why short run Aggregate Supply curve is horizontal (15)
(b) Briefly explain major factors which alter the slope of Aggregate Supply Curve. (05)

Q.5. (a) Briefly explain major components of Aggregate Demand equation (function) and also explain the role of planned and real (effective) aggregate demand. (15)
(b) Besides, explain how an increase in net exports may change equilibrium of the economy. Discuss it’s impacts. (05)

Q.6. (a) Briefly point out major reasons for money demand. How an equilibrium in the money marked is established. (15)
(b) Show an impact of an increase in prices on money supply and in money market. (05)

Q.7. (a) Briefly explain major definitions of inflation. (05)
(b) How there could be hyper inflation and propose its remedial measures. (15)

Q.8. (a) Explain major goals of International Monetary Institutions like World Bank. (10)
(b) Discuss with proof whether and how many such goals, you discussed under (a) above are achieved. (10)

ECONOMICS, PAPER-II

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet.

(i) The best measure of economic development is:
(a) GNP
(b) HDI
(c) PQLI
(d) None of these

(ii) Due to land reforms of 1972 the number of farmers benefited were around:
(a) 50,300
(b) 71,500
(c) 81,201
(d) 40,301

(iii) The best measure of economic development, among the following is:
(a) Life expectancy
(b) Industrial development
(c) Agricultural and industrial development
(d) Development of services sector

(iv) As per 1990 census, the number of tenants in Pakistan were around:
(a) 16%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 13%
(e) None of these

(v) Area irrigated by different sources in Pakistan is around ___________ Million hectares:
(a) 17
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 18

(vi) Which era (decade) in Pakistan is called “the decade lose”:
(a) 1960’s
(b) 1970’s
(c) 1980’s
(d) 1990’s
(e) 2000’s

(vii) The urban employment in the informal industry is:
(a) 72%
(b) 50%
(c) 30%
(d) 79%
(e) 60.5%

(viii) The effective tariff rate in Pakistan (Foreign Sector) is:
(a) Below 10%
(b) Around 15%
(c) Around 20%
(d) Around 23%

(ix) The major objective of Monetary Authorities is:
(a) To control inflation and help the government
(b) Stability of the economy
(c) To reduce unemployment and print money
(d) To control interest rate and promote investment
(e) None of these

(x) Out of total reveue of Pakistan, the following percentage is spent on defence and debt services:
(a) 50%
(b) 30%
(c) 90%
(d) 80%
(e) 70%

(xi) Under WTO, Pakistan has bounded tariff for agriculture around:
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 150%
(d) None of these

(xii) The best technique to measure competitiveness of trade is:
(a) Absolute advantage
(b) Comparative advantage
(c) Revealed comparative advantage
(d) Openness of the foreign sector

(xiii) The agricultural share in GDP is around:
(a) 22%
(b) 20%
(c) 15%
(d) 10%

(xiv) Structural adjustment program in Pakistan led to:
(a) Increase poverty
(b) Reduce poverty
(c) Improve the economy
(d) No significant impact

(xv) The IMF loans are:
(a) For short term
(b) For long term
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

(xvi) Indirect taxes are around _____________ of the revenue.
(a) 70%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) None of these

(xvii) In the last ten years, foreign debt servicing of Pakistan has:
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Remained the same

(xviii) With the introduction of reforms in the foreign sector Pakistan’s competitiveness has:
(a) Improved
(b) Deteriorated
(c) Improved and deteriorated
(d) Deteriorated and improved

(xix) The industrial share in the GDP is around:
(a) 20%
(b) 18%
(c) 22%
(d) 15%

(xx) Produce Index Unit is:
(a) Per acre total production in a year
(b) Per acre production of one crop in one acre
(c) Aggregate average production per acre
(d) None of these

PART – II

Q.2. (a) Define Economic Development and state that how this definition has changed over time? (15)
(b) In the light of (a) above, how the scope of Development Economics has changed? (05)

Q.3. (a) Explain why trade is considered as “engine of growth”? (10)
(b) Did liberalization lead to improve our exports? Explain with the help of Pakistan’s competitiveness (say Revealed comparative advantage). (10)

Q.4. (a) Evaluate and point out major sources of agricultural growth in Pakistan? (10)
(b) What happened to these variables of growth over the time? (You must provide empirical evidence for your arguments). (10)

Q.5. (a) Discuss major sources of industrial growth in Pakistan. (10)
(b) Point out major obstacles in its growths. (10)

Q.6. (a) Discuss the role of foreign debt and its implications. (10)
(b) How can we get out of debt trap? (10)

Q.7. (a) Point out three major approaches to measure poverty and analyze poverty problem in Pakistan, with respect to the best approach you have described? (15)
(b) Describe A. K. Sin’s contribution to measure Poverty. (05)

Q.8. (a) Briefly discuss major components of recent fiscal policy being followed in Pakistan. (10)
(b) Analyze its contribution to improve the economy. (10)

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Indo-Pak History

Paper 1

2)Akbar fully realized the absence of national spirit in the mughal Empire and tried to bulid one,but history of his dynasty records that he failed in the task.In this context discuss Akbar's policy towards non-Muslims.

3)Internal consolidation rather than territorial expansion was the keynote of Balban's policy.Elucidate

4)By his poslitical reforms and policy of religious toleration Sher Shah laid the foundation of an enlightened government.Discuss.

5)Illtutmish was the real founder of Sultanates in Delhi.Build your own argument on the statement with relevant facts.

6)Khanqahs played an important role in the demonstration of Islamic idea of Tauheed as a working principle in the social life of India.Discuss.

7)Evaluate the role of Ulama and Umara in the development of Sultanate of Delhi.

8)Analyse the impact of the conquest of Sindh led by Muhammad Bin Qasim.Is it correct to say that this conquest was a mere episode in the history of Sub-Continent?

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Political Science

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Agriculture

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Applied Mathematics Paper 1 & 2

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PAPER 2

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Punjabi

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Precis and Composition Paper

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CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Sociology

SOCIOLOGY
Part I
Objectives

Who said "Man is a social animal"?
Aristotle.

Who called sociology "Social Physics"?
a)Auguste Comte
b)Wilfred
c)Herbert Spencer

3)Bourgeois type of society was introduced by?
Karl Marx

4)When cultural traits spread from one society to another,the process is called?
Diffusion

5)An ascribed status is one that is;
endowed at birth

6)Ethnocentrism means
superiority of ones own culture

7)A system in which one husband is married to many women is called;
polygamy

8)Levirate means;
a)Marriage of a man with the widow of his deceased brother
b)Marriage of a man with the sister of his deceased wife
c)None of these.

9)Joint family may be preferred because it has;
a)greater financial security
b)Division of labour
c)workable as a cooperative
d)all of these

10)Which of the following is not a major feature of capitalism?
Equitable distribution of income

11)Movement from rural to urban area is called;
Urbanization

12)Religion is a unified system of beliefs and practices relative to sacred things.This definition has been given by;
Durkheim

13)Rapid growth of urbanization is due to advancement in;
a)modernization
b)westernization
c)technology
d)transport

14)Whose statement is this"where there is life there is society"
a)August Comte
b)Herbert Spencer
c)Durkheim
d)Maclver & Page

15)Who developed the "organic theory of society"
a)Herbert Spencer
b)Henry Maine
c)Thomas Hobbes
d)Maclver

16)What does culture usually reflect in Modern society?
a)Group culture
b)National culture
c)Geographical culture
d)religious culture

17)Customs are powerful in regulating the conduct of people in:
a)Simple societies
b)Urban societies
c)Industralized societies
d)All of these

18)Which one of these is not an essential element of community
Individual interest

19)Norms in society indicate;
Standarized generalization about normal expected mode of behaviour

20)Which one of the following is not a healthy social process?
a)Competition
b)Co-operation
c)Integration
d)None of these.

Part II

Q2 Define the term "Social change" and discuss the process of social change in group behaviour.

Q3 Define the term "Social problem" and discuss the causes of drug abuse in Pakistan.

Q4 Discuss in detail "Urbanization as a process".

Q5 Write a note in detail on "Evolutionary Theory" given by Ibn-i-Khaldun.

Q6 Discuss in detail "Theory of Labour" given by Karl Marx.

Q7 Define the term "Social Research" and discuss the procedure "How to conduct a Research?"

Q8 Discuss the status of elderly people in Pakistani society.

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Pushto

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CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Arabic Paper 1 & 2

Paper 2

CSS Past Papers Of 2011 Botany paper 1& 2

CSS Botany Paper 2011

                                                                              PAPER I
                                                                              PART – I 
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) The Green Algae belongs to:
(a) Cyanochloranta
(b) Chlorophycophyta
(c) Charophyta
(d) Cryptophycophyta
(e) None of these

(ii) If the gametes and gametangia in Fungi are of unequal size, they are termed as:
(a) Heterothallic
(b) Homothallic
(c) Isogametes
(d) Anisogametes
(e) None of these

(iii) Chlorophyll ‘d’ exists in:
(a) Pyrrophyta
(b) Phaeophyta
(c) Cryptophyta
(d) Rhodophyta
(e) None of these

(iv) Which of the type of chlorophyll is rare in Xanthophyceae and has been determined in only two of its genera:
(a) chlorophyll ‘a’
(b) chlorophyll ‘e’
(c) chlorophyll ‘b’
(d) chlorophyll ‘d’
(e) None of these

(v) The Axoneme in an algal filament is composed of ____________ fibrils:
(a) five
(b) seven
(c) eleven
(d) one
(e) None of these

(vi) An antibiotic called “Chlorellin” is derived from:
(a) Chara
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Volvox
(d) Chlorella
(e) None of these

(vii) In Pakistan, Volvox is found abundantly in water ponds during the months of:
(a) March and April
(b) May and June
(c) November and December
(d) January and February
(e) None of these

(viii) Because of extracting ______ from water and depositing it in their walls different species of Chara are referred to as “Stone Worts:
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Potassium sulphate
(d) Potassium nitrate
(e) None of these

(ix) Puccinia graminis causes _______ in wheat:
(a) Yellow or stripe rust
(b) Brown or orange leaf rust
(c) Black or stem rust
(d) Loose green smut
(e) None of these

(x) The zero and one stages of Puccinia graminis are produced on:
(a) Triticum aestivum
(b) Hordeum Vulgare
(c) Sorghum Vulgare
(d) Barberis Vulgaris
(e) None of these

(xi) A stable self-supporting association of a _______ is termed as lichen:
(a) bryophyte & a pteridophyte
(b) mycobiont & a phycobiont
(c) plant & animal
(d) gymnosperm & angiosperm
(e) None of these

(xii) Equisetum is the only living genus that belongs to:
(a) Sphenopsida
(b) Caphalida
(c) Chlorophycophyta
(d) Pteropsida
(e) None of these

(xiii) The genus Equisetum comprises about 25 species distributed world-over except in:
(a) Eurasia
(b) North America
(c) South America
(d) Australasia
(e) None of these

(xiv) The members of class Filicinae in pteridophyta date back to _______ era:
(a) Mesozoic
(b) Paleozoic
(c) Cenozoic
(d) Cambrian
(e) None of these

(xv) Marsilea quadrifolia belongs to the group of plants known as:
(a) Lichens
(b) Sedges
(c) Ferns
(d) Shrubs
(e) None of these

(xvi) ________ show marked affinities with both Pteridophytes and angiosperms:
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Hydrophytes
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Epiphytes
(e) None of these

(xvii) _______ has five leaves in the spur:
(a) Pinus longifolia
(b) Pinus excelsa
(c) Pinus roxberghii
(d) Pinus wallichiana
(e) None of these

(xviii) The resting period between pollination and fertilization in Taxas baccata may be:
(a) Five to ten months
(b) Two to three months
(c) One to two months
(d) Ten to eleven months

(xix) In Ephedra, the oosphore undergoes repeated divisions to produce eight-celled:
(a) Zygote
(b) Zygosphore
(c) Endosperm
(d) Pro-embryo
(e) None of these

(xx) Double fertilization is a characteristic of:
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Bryophytes
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Pteridophytes
(e) None of these

CSS Botany Paper 2011-12


Part II

Q.2 a) classify different groups of algae based on their habitat and pigmentation. 10
b) Write a note on the economic importance of chlorophyta.10

Q .3 Fungi have great impact on our national economy. Explain their constructive and destructive roles with a special emphasis on agricultural sector.

Q.4 What are lichens? Explain how lichens are not only beneficial for humans but also for the universe?

Q.5 a) Explain the general characteristics of Bryophytes. 10
b) Write a detailed note on mode of reproduction in Marchantia. 10

Q.6 a)Discuss the structure of strobilus and sporangia of Equisetum. 10
b)Explain thhe major resemblances and differences between Gymnosperms and Pteridophytes 10

Q.7 Explain the mechanism of pollination, fertilization and development of seed as well as seed dispersal in Angiosperms.


Q.8 Write short notes on any two of the following:
1)Rules of botanical nomenclature
2) Chemo-taxonomy and numerical taxonomy
3) Concept of Speciation




                                                                       PAPER II

                                                                              Part– I 

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) NADH from the Krebs cycle is approximately equal to:
(a) 2 ATP
(b) 3 ATP
(c) 4 ATP
(d) 6 ATP
(e) None of these

(ii) In mitochondrial electron transport chains, the final c acceptor is:
(a) H2O
(b) H2O2
(c) NAD+
(d) FAD
(e) None of these

(iii) The movement of water from cell to cell via plasmadesmata is called:
(a) Symplastic
(b) Transmembrane
(c) Apoplastic
(d) Facilitated
(e) None of these

(iv) In maize plant, the CO2 fixation mechanism is called:
(a) C3 pathway
(b) C4 pathway
(c) CAM pathway
(d) C3 – C4 intermediate
(e) None of these

(v) Salt-loving plants are known as:
(a) Glycophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Xerophytes
(d) Mesophytes
(e) None of these

(vi) With the addition of solution to a liquid system, the water potential of the system:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains stable
(d) Remains variable
(e) None of these

(vii) The conversion of pyruvate into acetyl C0. A is called:
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Fermentation
(c) Oxidative carboxylation
(d) B-Oxidation
(e) None of these

(viii) Between adenine and thymine, there are:
(a) Two hydrogen bonds
(b) 3 hydrogen bonds
(c) One hydrogen bond
(d) 4 hydrogen bonds
(e) None of these

(ix) The stage of meiosis in which pairing of homologous chromosomes starts is called:
(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Diplotene
(d) Pachytene
(e) None of these

(x) The site of chromosome on which a gene is located is called:
(a) Allele
(b) Locus
(c) Site
(d) Trait
(e) None of these

(xi) In a dihybrid cross, the ratio of F2 generation is:
(a) 9:3:3:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:2:1
(d) 1:1
(e) None of these

(xii) When a single gene has multiple effects, the phenomenon is called:
(a) Codominance
(b) Epistasis
(c) Pleiotropy
(d) Genostasis
(e) None of these

(xiii) Lamarck’s theory of evolution was published in:
(a) 1807
(b) 1808
(c) 1809
(d) 1810
(e) None of these

(xiv) The book “Origin of Species” was written by:
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Lamarck
(c) Mendel
(d) Darwin
(e) None of these

(xv) The interaction between algae and fungi to form lichen is called:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutalism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Amensalism
(e) None of these

(xvi) The actual location or place where an organism lives is called:
(a) Habitat
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Niche
(d) Biome
(e) None of these

(xvii) Which of the biomes has been increased in area by human activities?
(a) Savanna
(b) Grassland
(c) Desert
(d) Coniferous forest
(e) None of these

(xviii) Which zone of the lake ecosystem consists of phyto-and zoo-planktons?
(a) Littoral zone
(b) Limnetic zone
(c) Profundal zone
(d) Water deep layers
(e) None of these

(xix) Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Decomposers
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

(xx) A sequence of changes in the community structure of an ecosystem over a period of time is called:
(a) Natural selection
(b) Succession
(c) Neo-Darwinism
(d) Lamarckism
(e) None of these



Part II

Q.2 a) What is oxidative phosphorylation? How does it take place on the mitochondrial membrane and how is it associated with synthesis of metabolic energy? 10
b) What is pigment? Give the structures and chemical composition of all plant pigments involved in photosynthesis. 10

Q.3 Describe the structure ,transport, biosynthesis and mode of action of Auxins.

Q.4 a) Differentiate between Dark respiration and photo respiration. 10
b) Describe the salient effects of water-logging on plants. 10

Q.5 What is ecosystem How is its composition affected by different environmental factors.?

Q.6 Write notes on following: 10*2
i) Genetic code
ii)Gene transformation

Q.7 a) What are major factors which affect the evolution of a trait? 10
b) Describe ecological Energetics. 10

Q.8 Write short note on any TWO of following:
i) Photoperiodism
ii) Ultra-structure of chloroplast
iii)Conservation of natural resources

__________________